In Isaiah 7:14 it says that the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. If this was speaking of Jesus, why was he never called by that name?

First of all notice Matthew 1:21-23 where he writes, ‘”She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel.’

Now in regards to this question, it would seem downright strange for Matthew to say in one sentence that the boy was named Jesus, but immediately quote the prophecy that said he was to be named Immanuel. It would seem that either the book contradicted itself between two sentences right  that are right next to each other, or maybe there is an explanation for doing so.

During that period of time (and sometimes even today), the names of people revealed their personality, as well as their status or nature. Take for example when Jesus is called the Lamb of God (John 1:29), the Chief Shepherd (1 Peter 5:4), and even the King of Israel (John 1:49), none of these were his name by birth, but were descriptions of his status.

In addition, look at Isaiah 9:6 which says, “For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.” None of these were the name given to Jesus at his birth, but they serve as descriptions of his character, status, and nature. We can see now, in light of these additional verses that Isaiah 7:14 serves to be no difficulty whatsoever. The word Immanuel just like the titles mentioned in Isaiah 9:6, are simply words that were used to describe who Jesus is.